The first equation is "derived" by using the Lorentz force with the magnetic component discarded.

But this is an absurd assumption. If it were true, then, if we attach a magnet to a piece of superconductor, the whole system will accelerate in the direction of the magnet due to lack of magnetic force on the currents in the superconductor.

I'm sorry, but the second London equation is contradictory. It implies that a current in a wire is in the opposite direction to itself. It always gives direction to the current which will reduce the magnetic field, but in a super-conducting wire, the current doesn't reduce the magnetic field, it causes it.In the wire, the curl of the current will be in the opposite direction to the one predicted by the second London equation.

It seems pretty clear that everything is consistent. The curl of the current is in the same direction as the magnetic field inside the conductor.

Quote from: meberbs on 05/07/2017 06:12 PMIt seems pretty clear that everything is consistent. The curl of the current is in the same direction as the magnetic field inside the conductor.Ahh, but in the second London equation the curl of the current is in the opposite direction to the magnetic field.